Why is the use of the Vernacular accepted as Orthodox?

Discuss the holy Mysteries and the liturgical life of the Church such as the Hours, Vespers, Matins/Orthros, Typica, and the Divine Liturgy. All Forum Rules apply. No polemics. No heated discussions. No name-calling.
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Lenexa
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Why is the use of the Vernacular accepted as Orthodox?

Post by Lenexa »

This question has been on my mind for a long time and I was wondering if anyone could give me an answer. In the Liturgy as used in Slavic Churches, Greek Churches, and Greek-Rite Arabic Churches, though I am not sure what the Romanians use, the vernacular is not used and an older, dead, liturgical language is used. When there was an attempt in Greece to use the vernacular Greek in the Liturgy it was recognized as wrong and anti-traditional. What I want to know is has anyone, Traditionalist or no, raised this question and/or raised a strong objection to the practice in this country and other western countries of fully embracing the use of the vernacular in the liturgy?
Personally I have never understood why there seems to be so little concern for this especially amongst Traditionalists!

I agree with this statement:

"The doctrine of the Church is essentially unchangeable, hence a dead language, which is subject to no change as to the meaning of its expressions is far better calculated to preserve it unchangeably than modern languages which are perpetually varying."

Strong and bitter words indicate a weak cause.

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jckstraw72
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Re: Why is the use of the Vernacular accepted as Orthodox?

Post by jckstraw72 »

its accepted bc its good for ppl to understand what they're hearing. a dead language cant preserve the faith if the ppl cant understand it and therefore cant learn from the services.

Glory to God for all Things!

Incognito1583
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Re: Why is the use of the Vernacular accepted as Orthodox?

Post by Incognito1583 »

I just picked a random thread to say this. It seems like the people on this site don't have any sense of humor, and it's scarry.

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